Finance folks, help me understand the IPO allocation probability
When the IPO for the retail category is over-subscribe let's say by 2x time, everyone seems to say that the probability of allocation is 1:2 i.e 50%, but is that the correct way of calculating probability?
Different retail investors apply for different numbers of lots, maximum allottees = (shares offered / total shares in 1 lot), it is possible that number of applicants are less than maximum allottees if maximum applicants are applying for more than 1 lot, in such cases if IPO is 2x times subscribed by total applicants less than max allottees then everyone is 100% going to get at least 1 lot, so probability becomes 100% and not 50%.
Is this calculation correct? What i'm missing or misunderstood?
I have watched many videos and read many articles but i'm still not clear on how probability calculation should be done correctly.